281. Guidelines: 2022 AHA/ACC/HFSA Guideline for the Management of Heart Failure – Question #14 with Dr. Javed Butler

The following question refers to Section 9.5 of the 2022 AHA/ACC/HFSA Guideline for the Management of Heart Failure.  The question is asked by Keck School of Medicine USC medical student & CardioNerds Intern Hirsh Elhence, answered first by Duke University cardiology fellow and CardioNerds FIT Ambassador Dr. Aman Kansal, and then by expert faculty Dr. Javed Butler. Dr. Butler is an advanced heart failure and transplant cardiologist, President of the Baylor Scott and White Research Institute, Senior Vice President for the Baylor Scott and White Health, and Distinguished Professor of Medicine at the University of Mississippi. The Decipher the Guidelines: 2022 AHA / ACC / HFSA Guideline for The Management of Heart Failure series was developed by the CardioNerds and created in collaboration with the American Heart Association and the Heart Failure Society of America. It was created by 30 trainees spanning college through advanced fellowship under the leadership of CardioNerds Cofounders Dr. Amit Goyal and Dr. Dan Ambinder, with mentorship from Dr. Anu Lala, Dr. Robert Mentz, and Dr. Nancy Sweitzer. We thank Dr. Judy Bezanson and Dr. Elliott Antman for tremendous guidance. Enjoy this Circulation 2022 Paths to Discovery article to learn about the CardioNerds story, mission, and values. Question #14 Mrs. Hart is a 70-year-old woman hospitalized for a 2-week course of progressive exertional dyspnea, increasing peripheral edema, and mental status changes. She has a history of coronary artery disease, hypertension, and heart failure for which she takes aspirin, furosemide, carvedilol, lisinopril, and spironolactone. On physical exam, the patient is afebrile, BP is 80/60 mmHg, heart rate is 120 bpm, and respiratory rate is 28 breaths/min with O2 saturation of 92% breathing room air. She is sitting upright and is confused. Jugular venous pulsations are elevated. Cardiac exam reveals an S3 gallop. There is ascites and significant flank edema on abdominal exam. Her lower extremities have 2+ pitting edema to her knees and are cool to touch. Her labs are significant for an elevated serum Creatinine of 3.0 from a baseline of 1.0 mg/dL, lactate of 3.0 mmol/L, and liver enzyme elevation in the 300s U/L. Which of the following is the most appropriate initial treatment? A Increase carvedilol B Start dobutamine C Increase lisinopril D Start nitroprusside Answer #14 Explanation The Correct answer is B – start dobutamine. This patient with progressive congestive symptoms, mental status changes, and signs of hypoperfusion and end-organ dysfunction meets the clinical criteria of cardiogenic shock. The Class 1 recommendation is that in patients with cardiogenic shock, intravenous inotropic support should be used to maintain systemic perfusion and maintain end-organ performance (LOE B-NR). Their broad availability, ease of administration, and clinician familiarity favor such agents as first line when signs of hypoperfusion persist. Interestingly, despite their ubiquitous use for management of cardiogenic shock, there is a lack of robust evidence to suggest the clear benefit of one agent over another.  Therefore, the choice of a specific agent is guided by additional factors including vital signs, concurrent arrhythmias, and availability. For this patient, dobutamine is the only inotrope listed. Although she is tachycardic, her lack of arrhythmia makes dobutamine relatively lower risk and does not outweigh the potential benefits. Choice A – Increase carvedilol – is not correct. Beta-blockers should be continued in HF hospitalization whenever possible; however, in a patient with low cardiac output and signs of shock, beta-blockers should be discontinued due to their negative inotropic effects. Choice C – Increase lisinopril – is not correct. Afterload reduction is reasonable to decrease myocardial oxygen demand. However, given the hypotension and renal dysfunction, increasing lisinopril could be potentially dangerous by fur...