Isaiah 7:14 in the KJV reads: “Therefore the Lord himself shall give you a sign; Behold, a virgin shall conceive, and bear a son, and shall call his name Immanuel.” But then the RSV came out in 1952 and translated virgin as young woman. Without a doubt more has been written on the interpretation of this term than on any other verse in the Old Testament. The majority of modern scholars for the last century have asserted that the Hebrew word ‘alma refers merely to a young woman. Are they right, or are the KJV translators and church fathers correct that it means virgin, as the apostle Matthew implied in the first chapter of his gospel?
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