Questions about whether or not inherently sinful humans could have accurately recorded the Word of God, whether the words about Moses in Acts 7:22 and Exodus 4:10 contradict each other, and why we’re told to say, “If it is the Lord’s will,” in James 4 but not James 5.
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How should I respond to the objection that humans, who are inherently sinful, could not have accurately recorded the Word of God?
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How do we reconcile the seeming contradiction between Acts 7:22, which says Moses was mighty in word and deed, and Exodus 4:10, where Moses says he is slow of speech and tongue?
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James 4:13–16 instructs us to qualify our plans by saying, “If it is the Lord’s will,” but his words in the next chapter about our prayers healing the sick include no qualifiers regarding God’s will. How does James 5 fit with James 4?
