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Is There a Difference Between a Manual Therapy Approach and a Pain Modified Approach?
Some therapists argue that you could pretty much achieve the same results with exercises. I would argue that if we're doing a traditional outcomes-based study, we're probably not going to see a difference in the two groups. So I really think if we'd have to measure something differently, when some of the arguments for an active approach is autonomy and that that person continues to self-treat afterwards. It would be a very interesting study. And if indeed that's the case, then we should absolutely consider that.