The Infectious Differential Between a 54-Year-Old Male and a Male With Cardiovascular Risk Factors

A 54-year-old male with some cardiovascular risk factors coming in with acute onset, voluminous, non-bloody diarrhea associated with constitutional systemic symptoms and abdominal pain. So she starts off with a good solid problem representation. For those of you who did not have a one-liner from over the break, was it an intentional choice on your partner to form one? How does hers compare to yours? Would you have included his cardiovascular risk factors? Clear any other data like you would have included in yours, such as his domestic travel history? First thing you think about with someone who has no prior history of any abdominal complaints or diarrheal illnesses is infection - especially a 54-