The Idiom Does Not Have to Mean Moral Inability

When i'm talking about the word dead, what i'm really getting at is how is it used when it's talking about spiritually dead unbelievers? That's why i go to ephesians, to the roman six example in the revelation three. Just simply because it's showing that the idiom does not have to mean moral inability. You have to now do better to show me where the idiom is used to mean that a person is morally incapable of responding even to life giving truth brought by the spirit himself. I don't think you've met that burden yet, topic. And so who's to say that in ephesians two, he's not also talking about how one