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Is It Legitimate to Press a Parable?
i want to suggest that there's all logic to his picking and choosing. If he just wants this one verse to be the voice of jesus, then what gives him the hermanutical right to do that? Now, it could be that he is picking and choosing, andand i want to say, if so, i want to propose a logical answer to that. But it might also be that he's not picking and choosing,. Let's just say, maybe he wants all the psalms, or all the verses in that psalm, to apply to jesus. How would we make sense of that? And i'd be interested to hear what you think about