Is Basianism Dressed Up Induction?

basianism comes in two parts. One is bays's rule, write the formula, or sis theorem, or basis law,. That's a mathematical result. It's just a statement about how probability works if you're dealing with a set of quantities that obey the axioms of probability. Then bases rule is just true for those quantities those probabilities. The opposite of said basianism is dressed up induction. I want to say that poparianism, falsificationism, is dressed down basianism. And ah, something else does work. But i haven't read his stuff very carefully. So i'mno say it yes or no. These two questions might seem different