Scalia's Warped View of History

In Scalia's opinion, he says that the adjective well-regulated implies nothing more than the imposition of proper discipline and training. The term well-regulated is pretty much proof that this militia no longer exists, right? Because all able-bodied men are not receiving military training. If these are really supposed to be under the control of the states, why can't states ban certain weapons? Why can't they dictate what weapons are used in their own militias?