Seneca and the Renaissance

Why isn't Seneca as known today as Sophocles and Euripides? I think there's two or three reasons. One is that in the 18th century, it was decided largely by the Germans that Greek literature was in every respect superior to Roman literature. It was also this notion that the Greeks were the original creators of these forms and the Romans had these dreary imitations. And so if you go back, you realize that Seneca's plays are not like Sophocles's plays, but they're quite wonderful in their own way.