Is There a Purity of Intention?

Kant thinks categorical imperatives can never be universal, whereas he thinks the categorical imperative is necessarily universal. So if you act with a little smidgen of like, like say I... it's my duty to not lie in a situation, right? He thinks freedom only occurs when you actually follow the categorical Imperative totally without any stain of impurity. But his point is only if you choose... you only have freedom if you choose rightly. Mm-hmm.