Do We See That Same Pattern in Constitutional Interpretation Outside of the Us?

The first ten amendments weren't called the bill of rights. It wasn't until 19 65, in a case called lemont versus postmaster general, that's the first time that supreme court invalidated a federal law for violating freedom of speech. So i'm curious, do we see that similar sort of pattern elsewhere? Like, does that same pattern show up in constitutional interpretation outside of the us? I mean, i know that may be way outside your expetise, but i'm just or or does it seem to be thati something where there wasa, there was like, an ideological turn toward pass i've, i've no idea. I barely know our countto no others