Did the Septuagint Translate Parthenos?

That's a really good question. We don't really know for sure what the Septuagint translators were up to or why they chose that particular word. I do know, of course, that the rabbinic sources later are scornful of Christians interpreting that as a messianic prophecy. It may be that there was some expectation of the hope of a restoration of the kingship in Israel that might have driven some of this. But I'm not aware, at least, of any evidence for that being a motivation behind this particular passage.

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