Aristotle's Definition of Pleasures

How does Aristotle jump from associating useless sensation with knowledge to saying that because we enjoy things in themselves, that therefore that is a sign of knowledge? And the answer is found in the terminology. He doesn't use either of these terms when he's discussing this idea. Instead, he uses the term agapasis which refers to something of a mix of hedoné and eudaimonia - pleasure of sensation as well as happiness of contemplation.