Is Kant a Precursor to the Unconscious?

Kant doesn't have a theory of the unconscious. He has no sense of it. But I think he kind of is a precursor of that in his understanding of moral law as this thing that doesn't have any antecedents within the society or within the natural world, right? And I think that's true of unconscious as well. Like if psyche is extended, knows nothing about it,. Because you can't, you know nothing about it. It cannot know anything about it. No other derivation is probable. Instead of Kant's a priori determinants of our psychical apparatus, psyche is extended and knowsnothing about it. Non knowing is our priori, right? Yeah.