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Motal Principle of Reason - Is That Enough?
I'm still thinking through this argument, ecause it's, it's fascinating to me right now. Could we use a kind of motal principle of sufficient reason in order to defend this? So we're asking what, like, why t is this thing, assuming that it has like, zero knowledge, it's less than perfectly valuable. And so we want to ask whil it has a finite limit, and how valuable it is. What best explains this, or what's the what's the explanation?