So the king would have been born with a neural propensity to stammer it wasn't caused by some deep rooted psychological problem. So he could be talking about some kind of moment of trauma during childhood which would then manifest itself as a speech impediment so he's saying that that's not the case. George the six would have been birth with a physical defect in his brain which then caused him to have speech problems okay? And how did his family and staff deal with George's stammer here's the answer  to question eight is how did hisFamily and Staff deal with George’s stammer?"

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