Is There a Difference Between John's Use of Jews and Paul's?

I'll be interested to hear your thoughts on how you would relate the way that the expression that Jews is used here to some of the ways it's used in John's gospel. Do you have the same issue with John? I haven't thought as much about John. But my impression is that there are similar sorts of parsing maneuvers that can be done with reading how John refers to the Jews. The particular universalizing thrust of this passage, how these Jews oppose God and all humankind, all mankind, gives it a particular rhetorical valence that I think is really dangerous and really, really unusual.