In Brief: Lindsey Graham’s “Speech or Debate” Defense (with Steve Vladeck)
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What if the Vote Was Purchased by a Bribe?
Generally speaking, casting a vote is right within the legislative function. Can't be prosecuted for that. But what if that vote was purchased by a bribe? Right? So the idea here is that there's a distinction between what the supreme court has called the legislative act and everything else. It seems a bit semantic in overly parson wit, because the completed crime of quid proquo involves both the taking of the bribe and the intent and the actual vote because of the bribe. Isn't it alittle weird? Ye, i think it's a little weird. And i think it' it's, it's, the whole clause is alittle weird.
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