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In 1922, there was a case called federal baseball club v National League which held that federal antitrust laws did not apply to baseball because baseball was not an interstate business. In the 1950s, the court had held that other sports, including football and boxing, are covered by antitrust laws. And so this kind of presents a interesting question. You have this, you know, what is at the time a 50 year old case saying baseball is not covered, but then recently they've been saying, other sports are covered. It's just stupid. The real reason that Blackman arrives at his conclusion is if you take a step back, he doesn't want to risk a ruling that would be too disruptive